Locke uses “the equality of men by nature” as the foundation for his discussion of liberty. How does he connect liberty and equality? Do you agree with the connections he is drawing? What are the implications of this part of his argument?
While describing his vision of the “state of nature,” Locke anticipates counterarguments to his position and works proactively to refute them—both through his own logic and by appealing to Hooker’s text. Do you agree with his depiction of the “state of nature”? Why/why not?
In chapter six, Locke qualifies what he means by “equality” and goes on to assert that “children… are not born in this full state of equality, though they are born to it.” Discuss your perspective on Locke’s definition of “equality” and his claim about children.
How does Locke connect paternal and familial power to the power of a state over its citizens? Do you believe this analogy is a useful one? Why/why not?
